In states that follow title theory, why is it not the lender that pays property taxes?

I am reading through other states mortgage and lending laws and there are a lot of states that adhere to title theory wherein the lender is in possession of the title until the mortgage has been satisfied. And I am just wondering why the mortgagee isn't the one who owes property taxes on the property as opposed to the mortgagor who does not posses the title.

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